The
interaction between homosexuality and Christianity today is rather interesting
and unprecedented. Everyone agrees that Christians have traditionally
considered homosexuality to be a sin, but rather than forsake the Church
altogether, some homosexuals have tried to argue that Christians have simply
misread the Bible for the last 2,000 years! They claim that if we look behind
biased English translations of the Bible to the original Hebrew and Greek
copies, we will discover that the Bible does not, in fact, condemn
homosexuality.
This
approach seems to be completely unprecedented. Compare this approach, for
example, to something like adultery. Adultery has become far less taboo over
the last few decades, but I have never heard anyone make the claim that for all
of these years, Christians have been misreading what the Bible says about
adultery! I think virtually everyone who has desired to commit adultery has
simply turned away from the Bible and the Church to follow their own desires.
Yet some
homosexuals—and a growing number of denominations—have set out to revise Christianity’s
historic opinion on this issue. So we need to clear the air about this
question—does the Bible call homosexuality a sin? Today, I want to address the
most common claims made by pro-homosexual interpreters and writers. You will
likely run across these claims at some point if you haven’t already. For
example, I just encountered them again the other day in an opinion piece on
CNN.com.
I am going
to address eight claims concerning passages from Scripture and traditional
Christian morality. I will be touching on several stories from Scripture, and
for the sake of time I’m going to assume that you are familiar with these
stories. If you are not, I would strongly encourage you to get a copy of this
sermon, then read the stories later and go over the sermon again.
Claim #1—God’s anger toward the
people of Sodom was directed toward the act of rape, not specifically the act
of homosexuality.
Pro-gay
interpreters have been very fond of saying that the story of Sodom in Genesis
19 has nothing to say about God’s opinion of monogamous homosexual
relationships. They claim it simply shows God’s disapproval of rape. Now it is
certainly true that the men of Sodom weren’t trying to form civil unions with
the angels whom they thought were ordinary men. But does this story say
anything about homosexuality itself? I believe it does.
Several
pro-gay interpreters have tried to use Ezekiel 16:49 to say that the overall
sin of Sodom was a lack of concern for the rights of others. That verse says, “Behold, this was the guilt of your sister Sodom: she and her
daughters had pride, excess of food, and prosperous ease, but did not aid the
poor and needy.” But several interpreters whom I read left off the next
verse: “They were haughty and did an abomination before
me (Ezek. 16:50).”
Now what
was this abomination? The Bible never uses that word to describe rape. That
doesn’t mean that God approves of rape, it simply means that He used different
language to condemn that sin. The Bible does, however, use that word to
describe homosexuality in Leviticus 18:22. Now, the Bible does attach that word
to refer to other sins as well, but this language certainly makes it at least possible
that the abomination of Ezekiel 16:50 refers to homosexuality.
I think
Jude 1:7 really settles the matter. That verse says, “…Sodom
and Gomorrah and the surrounding cities…likewise indulged in sexual immorality
and pursued unnatural desire.” This verse is a more general reference to
the sexual behavior of Sodom and the cities around it, and as such it gives a
picture of their typical sexual behavior beyond simply the incident recorded in
Genesis 19. Their typical behavior involved “unnatural desires”—desires that
did not conform to God’s created order. It is not at all unreasonable to
interpret this statement as a reference to homosexuality.
Claim #2—Commands against
homosexuality in the Old Testament Law are irrelevant for homosexual behavior
today.
The
commands in question here are found in Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13:
·
“You shall not lie with a male as with a woman;
it is an abomination.”
·
“If a man lies with a male as with a woman, both
of them have committed an abomination; they shall surely be put to death; their
blood is upon them.”
Pro-gay
interpreters have long amused themselves by pointing out strange quirks in the
Old Testament Law. They say that if we’re going to point to the Old Testament
Law to condemn homosexuality, then we should also stop eating pork and wearing
shirts made of a poly-cotton blend! They are correct in saying that such
actions were forbidden under Old Testament Law, and they are correct in saying
that we do not live under such commands today. The New Testament makes it clear
that in the unfolding of God’s plan for salvation, the Old Testament Law has
served its purpose of pointing out sin and pointing to Christ. Thus, it is no
longer directly binding on us today.
But does
that mean that the Old Testament Law no longer has any relevance for us?
Certainly not! When we consider moral questions in particular, the Old
Testament Law still gives us a picture of God’s opinion on the matter, because
God’s moral opinions do not change. Thus, if He considered homosexuality to be
a sin in the Old Testament, we can safely conclude that He still considers
homosexuality to be a sin today.
Claim #3—Romans 1 condemns
heterosexuals who engage in homosexual behavior—NOT people who are homosexual
by nature.
Romans 1 is
without a doubt the central passage in the biblical debate about homosexuality.
Let’s take a look at what it says in context [READ Rom.
1:18-28]. The main verses in question are vv. 26-27, which pro-gay
interpreters have tried to place against the backdrop of sexual orgies which
occurred in pagan temples in the culture of that time. Their main argument is
that Paul is condemning heterosexual people who engaged in homosexual acts in
these temples. These heterosexual people thus “exchanged natural relations”—in
other words, the relations which were natural to them as heterosexual people.
The pro-gay conclusion is that Paul is not talking about people who are
homosexual by nature, and thus he is
not offering a condemnation of all homosexual acts.
This
argument is filled with errors on several fronts. First, it misunderstands the
language of “exchange” in this passage. That word occurs three times in the
context—in v. 23, v. 25, and v. 26. In each verse, the exchange involves giving
up something that fits with God’s created order for something that is a
perversion of God’s created order:
·
“[they] exchanged the glory of the immortal God
for images resembling mortal man and birds and animals and creeping things (v.
23)”
·
“they exchanged the truth about God for a lie
and worshiped and served the creature rather than the Creator (v. 25)”
·
“their women exchanged natural relations for
those that are contrary to nature (v. 26).”
This
comparison reveals that when Paul talks about “nature” in v. 26, he is not talking
about an individual’s personal desire or inclination. Rather, he is talking
about the natural world as God created it,
so homosexuality is a violation of the world as God created it and thus it is a
sin against Him.
Second, the
pro-gay argument misunderstands the language of God “giving mankind up.” This
phrase is also used three times in the context—in v. 24, v. 26, and v. 28. This
phrase refers to an act of judgment from God in which He allows mankind to take
one more step down the path of sin that we have chosen. Verses 18-23 tell us
that humanity has chosen idolatry over the worship of God—which again is an
exchange, a perversion of God’s created order. As a result, God has allowed us
to take further steps away from His created order, which leads us to descend
into a situation in which women are sexually involved with other women and men
are sexually involved with other men. Such acts are a violation of the way that
God created humanity, since, as Genesis 1 tells us, He created us male and
female so that we could multiply and fill the earth.
Third, the
grammar of this passage shows us that the homosexuality of vv. 26-27 is logically subsequent to the idolatry of
the preceding verses. Words like “therefore” and “for this reason” tell us that
Paul is moving forward in his train of thought. This progression means that
Paul is viewing homosexuality as a consequence of idolatry—not simply as an
action that took place within the context of pagan worship, even though that
may have been true. As Paul states it here, homosexuality is the result of
humanity’s embrace of idolatry; thus, we cannot say that Paul is only
condemning homosexual acts that took place in pagan temples.
The next two claims involve relationships that
are mentioned in the Bible.
Claim #4—Naomi and Ruth were
involved in a lesbian relationship.
Pro-gay
interpreters make this claim despite the fact that both Naomi and Ruth were
married to men when we meet them, and much of their story is about Naomi’s
efforts to get Ruth married to another man after their husbands pass away. But
pro-gay interpreters have pointed to the verb in Ruth 1:14, which says, “Ruth clung to [Naomi].” That same verb is found in the
famous “marriage” passage in Genesis 2:24, which says, “a
man shall leave his father and his mother and cling to his wife.” Thus, since
the same verb occurs in each of those verses, pro-gay interpreters claim that
Naomi and Ruth established a lesbian relationship at that point.
This
argument is simply a classic example of disregarding the context in which a
word is used. For example, at a wedding, people may
say things about the bride and groom like, “They’re getting hitched,” but no
one looks behind them to see if they’re towing a trailer! Context tells
us how we should understand the words that are being used.
Now, the
same verb is used in chapter 2 when Ruth is told to “stay with” the harvest
workers who were working in the fields of Boaz. Now clearly, we are not to conclude
that Ruth married all of the harvest workers—she simply stayed with them. The
context in which a word is used tells us the idea that it conveys; thus, Ruth
1:14 simply means that Ruth chose to stay with her mother-in-law after her
sister-in-law Orpah left.
Claim #5—David and Jonathan were
involved in a homosexual relationship.
Though the
Bathsheba incident tells us that David was clearly attracted to women, pro-gay
interpreters have seized on a statement that David made in order to argue that
he had a homosexual relationship with King Saul’s son, Jonathan. In 2 Samuel
1:26, David is lamenting Jonathan’s death in a recent battle when he says, “I am distressed for you, my brother Jonathan; very pleasant
have you been to me; your love to me was extraordinary, surpassing the love of
women.”
Pro-gay
interpreters today have been very quick to insert erotic overtones into every
biblical story that they can—as we have already seen with the story of Naomi
and Ruth. But when we read this statement from David in the overall context of
his life, we find no reason to think that this statement reflected anything
more than a deep friendship. We know that Jonathan and David were both married
to women, and David’s affair with Bathsheba reveals that he had a strong sexual
attraction to women. Moreover, it is unthinkable that David could have become
such a hero to the Jewish nation if he had an openly gay relationship, since
such relationships were forbidden under the Law of Moses.
Pro-gay
interpreters seem unwilling to consider that such a thing as brotherly love
exists. In their zeal to find God’s blessing for their own lust, I believe they
are simply projecting their lust onto the pages of Scripture.
Claim #6—Jesus did not speak
about homosexuality, therefore He was not opposed to it.
Pro-gay
interpreters have long pointed to Jesus’ silence about homosexuality in the
Gospels as support for their position. But this claim is riddled with errors.
First, it is simply an illogical argument. This kind of argument is what
philosophers call an “argument from silence,” which basically means that these
interpreters are putting words in Jesus’ mouth. If Jesus never spoke about the
issue, it is illogical to say that His silence equals approval.
Second, we
really don’t know if Jesus ever spoke about homosexuality; it is possible that
He did. The Gospels are not a collection of every word that Jesus ever spoke.
But if He ever did talk about this issue, we actually have good reason to think
that He would have condemned homosexuality. In Matthew 5:17-19, Jesus revealed
His clear approval of the Old Testament Law when He said, “Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the
Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. For truly, I say
to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not an iota, not a dot, will pass from
the Law until all is accomplished. Therefore whoever relaxes one of the least
of these commandments and teaches others to do the same will be called least in
the kingdom of heaven…” If Jesus approved of the Old Testament Law, then
He also approved of the Law’s commandments against homosexuality.
Third, this
argument illegitimately puts the words of Jesus in a different category than
the rest of Scripture. If all Scripture is breathed out by God, as 2 Timothy
3:16 claims, then we should not elevate one part of Scripture over another. It
makes no difference whether the words came from the lips of the God-man, the
Lord Jesus Christ, or whether they came from the pen of men who were directed
by the Holy Spirit to write the words that they wrote. Every word of Scripture
is equally authoritative.
Claim #7—Homosexual desires are
God-given at birth, therefore it is acceptable to act on them.
It seems
that we’re hearing this claim more and more, especially as researchers try to
find genetic causes for homosexuality. Let me point out a few flaws with this
argument. First, even if a person has homosexual desires from birth, it does
not logically follow that those desires came from God. The presence of sin in
the world has wreaked havoc on God’s creation, extending even as far as the
desires that we feel. As we learned recently in our series on abortion, King
David wrote that he had a sinful nature from the moment he was conceived (Psalm
51:5). In reality, we all have sinful desires from birth, but these desires came
not from God, but from our own sinfulness.
Second, the
idea that my personal desires determine what is right and wrong for me is not a
legitimate ethical standard. It violates our common intuition that certain acts
are right and certain acts are wrong regardless of how anyone feels about them.
It is simply a fact that no one consistently lives out the idea that right and
wrong are simply matters of personal desire or opinion. If someone tries to
tell you that they are, then just do something that they think is wrong and see
how quickly they try to force their personal opinions on you! There are
objective moral standards laid out by God, and His standards tell us what is
acceptable and unacceptable—what is right and what is wrong.
Claim #8—The morality of
biblical times is not an appropriate moral guide for today.
This
argument reveals the tremendous irony of pro-gay interpretation. They want so
badly to find approval for their behavior in the Bible, but if it turns out
that the Bible really does call their behavior “sin,” they’re ready to throw it
under the bus!
The gist of
this argument is that times change and cultures change, so likewise, acceptable
morality changes as well. This argument is another one with multiple problems.
First, it rejects the idea that the authors of Scripture were guided by the
Holy Spirit as they wrote. This argument views the Bible as simply a product of
its times—not the product of a God who is capable of authoritatively speaking once to all times and all places.
Second,
this argument embraces the false idea that morality is a product of one’s
culture rather than universal principles that are binding on all cultures. The
problem with such an idea is that it is self-defeating. When someone claims
that morality simply comes from your culture rather than universal principles,
they believe their opinion is true of all cultures—in other words, they are
claiming that their opinion is a universal principle, which isn’t supposed to
exist according to their opinion! Ultimately, this idea shoots itself in the
foot; it proves that it is false because it claims to be the very thing that
the claim says it cannot be.
We have put
in a fair amount of time today assessing pro-gay interpretations of the Bible.
It is very clear that they have put in a lot of time to try and find approval
for homosexuality in the Bible. But why are they going to all this trouble? As
I mentioned earlier, this effort is unprecedented—most people just immediately
dismiss the Bible when it disagrees with what they want to do. But why can’t a
significant number of homosexuals seem to be able to just walk away from the
Bible?
In my
opinion, this quest represents a lack of inner peace within these individuals.
They know that true peace can only come from God, and so they seek His
approval, but at the same time they are desperately seeking to hold onto
sin—the very thing that keeps them from God’s approval. In the end, the one
hope for homosexuals is the only hope that exists for any of us: that Jesus became
sin on the cross though He committed no sin, so that we could become the
righteousness of God—accepted!—in Him (2 Cor. 5:21).